CompTIA Network plus N10-007 free practice test

This is a 30 (5+25) question Network plus N10-007 free practice test of the level of testing you should expect at the CompTIA Network+ exam.

NOTE:

This Network plus N10-007 free practice test consists exclusively of multiple-choice questions while our CertBlaster Exam Simulator does include the performance-based questions as well. This example does not simulate the exam but rather aims at demonstrating the level of complexity you can expect at the actual exam. To access interactive questions as well as grading, reports, and your custom “Personal Testing Plan”, you will need the CertBlaster Exam Simulation software.

Free Network+ Study Guide

If you are studying for the A+ Exams, check out our free Network+ Study guide for exam N10-007, it covers every last Network+ N10-007 exam objective as well as all the sub-objectives.

25 BONUS QUESTIONS!

We have just updated this Network plus N10-007 free practice test by adding another 25 questions past the below first 5 questions so make sure to scroll all the way down!

Understanding the CompTIA Network+ Exam

This a 6 – 7 page PDF explaining the CompTIA Network+ exam in some detail. Click on the link 5 Steps to Network+ Certification Success. It will take you to a form, under “Preferred Certification Track” pick your exam.

Question 1

At which layer of the OSI model is a PDU referred to as a frame?

Transport
Session
Data Link
Physical

Answer

A PDU begins its evolution at the Physical layer (Layer 1) where it is a series of bits. At the Data Link layer (Layer 2), it becomes a frame. At the Network layer (Layer 3), it becomes a packet. At the Transport layer (Layer 4), it is a segment and is passed to the upper layers. It is important to be able to correlate the terms and layers when discussing PDUs. For example, when the term “deep packet analysis” is used, you should know that you are talking about a device operating at the Network layer (Layer 3). So, the correct choice is Data Link.

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam objectives addressed by question 1

Main exam objective: 1.0 Networking Concepts

Exam sub-objective: 1.5 Compare and contrast the characteristics of network topologies, types and technologies.

Question 2

A SAN 10+ Gb Ethernet creates overhead on both the CPU and OS. Which of the choices provides the highest efficiency along with low overhead and latency?

iSCSI
InfiniBand
Fibre Channel
10GigE

Answer

While Ethernet-based standards and protocols are extremely fast, the InfiniBand protocols reduce the workload on server OSs and hardware. This results in faster data transfers with considerably lower latencies. The correct choice is therefore InfiniBand.

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam objectives addressed by question 2

Main exam objective: 2.0 Infrastructure

Exam sub-objective: 2.4 Explain the purposes of virtualization and network storage technologies.

Question 3

The acronym MTTR is used in your documentation. How would you prepare to reduce this factor?

Predict the occurrence
Use MTBF and have replacements on hand
Create a solid response policy
Reduce the stresses on the components

Answer

MTTR is the Mean Time To Repair. This indicates a failure with a calculated replacement timeline. The best way to reduce this time is to have the parts on hand. If you know that a server drive running 24/7 will fail within a specified timeframe, have one on hand. Having said this, the chances are high that you will upgrade most devices before they fail. The correct choice is therefore “Use MTBF and have replacements on hand”.

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam objectives addressed by question 3

Main exam objective: 3.0 Network Operations

Exam sub-objective: 3.2 Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

Question 4

There are rumors of widespread layoffs in a company. A programmer that feels at risk modifies his programming to execute malicious device encryption code if he is unemployed at the end of the month. The infected device(s) will display instructions requiring payment to regain control of the device(s). How would you categorize this action? (Choose two)

Logic bomb
Trojan horse
Back door
Bot

Ransomware

Answer

Logic bombs are classic demonstrations of time-dependent malware. The code that executes encrypts the device and demands payment, classifying it as ransomware. The correct choices are Logic bomb and Ransomware .

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam objectives addressed by question 4

Main exam objective: 4.0 Network Security

Exam sub-objective: 4.4 Summarize common networking attacks.

Question 5

You have concluded that two hosts have duplicate IP addresses on your network. How could this happen?

They are using static IP addresses
They are using the wrong gateway
DHCP leases are too long
None of these

Answer:

In this case, you would check the IP addresses and make sure they are not statically assigned. If one host must use a static address, reserve it in the DHCP scope and assign the second host to use DHCP. The correct choice is “They are using static IP addresses”.

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam objectives addressed by question 5

Main exam objective: 5.0 Network Troubleshooting and Tools

Exam sub-objective: 5.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common network service issues.

CertBlaster exam simulator for CompTIA Network+ N10-007

The questions above are all multiple choice. Below is a screenshot of one of the performance-based questions available in the interactive CertBlaster exam simulation software.

The CertBlaster practice tests for Network+ N10-007 includes over 500 questions. It also includes the CompTIA Performance Based Question type, see below example of a CertBlaster PBQ.

Screenshot of a Network+ N10-007 Perormance based question
Network+ N10-007 Performance-based question

 

HERE ARE THE 25 BONUS QUESTIONS!

Question 1

Which of the protocols would be MOST useful when synchronizing the times between a client and server?

SIP

ARP

TLS

NTP

Answer: NTP

Explanation: The Network Time Protocol is used to synchronize the time between computers.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.1 – “Explain the purposes and uses of ports and protocols.”

Question 2

Which protocol defines the standard packet format for VoIP transmissions on IP networks?

RTP

NTP

QoS

TLS

Answer: RTP

Explanation: The Real-time Transport Protocol provides end-to-end real-time transfer of streaming media.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.1 – “Explain the purposes and uses of ports and protocols.”

Question 3

The SNMP protocol has had two additional capabilities added since its inception. They are GetBulkRequest and Inform Request. Which revision was the first to implement these capabilities?

SNMPv1

SNMPv2

SNMPv3

None of these are correct responses.

Answer: SNMPv2

Explanation: These capabilities were added in SNMPv2 and carried forward to SNMPv3.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.1 – “Explain the purposes and uses of ports and protocols.”

Question 4

For network performance management, which of the choices prioritizes traffic to improve QoS?

Packet Shaping

Traffic Shaping

Bandwidth Management

All of these are correct

Answer: All of these are correct

Explanation: All of the choices listed are synonymous with the process of assigning priorities of network traffic by reducing congestion caused by operations that can tolerate reduced bandwidth and providing adequate service to processes like video and voice communications.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.3 – “Explain the concepts and characteristics of routing and switching.”

Question 5

When a router receives a packet, it examines the packet and refers to its ACL for criteria for permitting or denying access to the network. The ACL statement “any” is equivalent to using which one of the following wildcard masks?

0.0.0.0

*.*

255.255.255.255

1.1.1.1

Answer: 255.255.255.255

Explanation: The ACL (Access Control List) statement “any” is the equivalent to using a wildcard mask of 255.255.255.255, which allows all IP addresses to pass.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.3 – “Explain the concepts and characteristics of routing and switching.”

Question 6

There are several performance concepts used to manage and give precedence to network traffic. Of the choices provided, which protocol is responsible for the specification and control of network traffic to give precedence to traffic by type?

QoS

Diffserv

RIP

Traffic shaping

Answer: Diffserv

Explanation: Of the choices provided, Diffserv is correct. This protocol gives priority to traffic by assigning classes of traffic and then giving certain classes precedence. QoS might seem like a good choice, but it is not a protocol, nor is traffic shaping.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 1.0 – Networking Concepts
Sub-Objective: 1.3 – “Explain the concepts and characteristics of routing and switching.”

Question 7

As fiber optic technology evolves, transceivers are used to reduce server hardware limitations and still provide the flexibility of growing networks. You need a transceiver to handle four channels and support 40 Gbps data rates. Which transceiver would you use?

GBIC

QSFP

XFP

SFP

Answer: QSFP

Explanation: Of the choices shown, QSFP supports four channels and a data rate of 40 Gbps (4 x 10 Gbps).  The remainder of your choices are as follows:

  • GBIC is becoming obsolete at 1 Gbps
  • SPF can run from 1 to 5 Gbps
  • XFP is capable of 10 Gbps

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Given a scenario, deploy the appropriate cabling solution.”

Question 8

Which of the communication methods listed are NOT examples of full duplex systems?

Ethernet

Telephone

Walkie-talkie

Two-way radios

Answer: Walkie-talkie

Explanation: A full duplex system can send and receive communications simultaneously. The only choice that does not fit here is the walkie-talkie where only one device can transmit at a given time. If the two devices transmit simultaneously both transmissions are dropped.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Given a scenario, deploy the appropriate cabling solution.”

Question 9

Where would the transition from SMF to MMF take place?

PBX

FDP

UTM

IPS

Answer: FDP

Explanation: The FDP (Fiber Distribution Panel) handles the transition between single and multi-mode fiber connections.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Given a scenario, deploy the appropriate cabling solution.”

Question 10

Which cable designation is required by most state and local codes for use in dropped ceilings and other areas such as ductwork?

Cat-5e

Plenum

MTRJ

RJ-45

Answer: Plenum

Explanation: To attain a plenum grade designation, the cable is tested to ensure it does not emit toxic fumes in a fire.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Given a scenario, deploy the appropriate cabling solution.”

Question 11

You have been asked to quote on a project for a client that you have done work for previously. They currently have two buildings with a buried fiber cable between them. Here is all of the information that you have collected about the existing network connection:

  • 209 Meters between boxes based on the markings on the jacket of the buried cable.
  • 3 pairs of fiber 62.5/125 multimode.
  • Terminated at the boxes with ST connectors.
  • Currently using 62.5/125 Multimode patch cables.
  • Two Gigabit Netgear switches at each end of the fiber with standalone media converts.

The network is currently running at 100Mbit/s via two Allied Telesis MC102-XL media converters, which are 100TX to 100FX with SC connectors. The client is expressing a desire to move to a Gigabit connection between the buildings to help their database application perform better. Assuming that all the information is correct which of the following is most likely true?

The 62.5/125 fiber cable does not support Gigabit.

The 62.5/125 cables will support Gigabit but the run between the buildings is too long.

The existing fiber run has a margin of approximately 10 meters and minus any loss at the connections should run at the desired speed of 1 Gigabit.

The existing cable should be replaced with 50/125.

Answer: The existing fiber run has a margin of approximately 10 meters and minus any loss at the connections should run at the desired speed of 1 Gigabit.

Explanation: The distance limitation is the only thing that could get you in to difficulty in achieving your objective in this situation. Fiber, similar to the situation with Cat 5 has a 100m maximum, that’s the theoretical limit not the practical limit. It is possible to run 6.25/125 a little over 220m and still work. Maybe a little slower than 1000MB but still much better than 100MB and will probably never be noticed.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Given a scenario, deploy the appropriate cabling solution.”

Question 12

The device that performs modulation of a signal and the inverse of modulation is called a ______________.

Demodulator

Moderator

Modem

FDM

Answer: Modem

Explanation: The device that can perform both modulation of a signal and the demodulation of a signal is a modem, from modulator-demodulator.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 2.0 – Infrastructure
Sub-Objective: 2.2 – “Given a scenario, determine the appropriate placement of networking devices on a network and install/configure them.”

Question 13

When analyzing a network diagram, which component is the primary connection point that distributes data to its subordinates?

IDF

MDF

Cross connect

ISP

Answer: MDF

Explanation: The Main Distribution Frame (MDF) connects directly to the demarc and distributes the data to downline components.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Given a scenario, use appropriate documentation.”

Question 14

Network installations need to be neat and easy to service and maintain. Most enterprise level equipment will come rack ready to be installed in racks that make for a neat and clean server room or network closet. Racks are measured in terms of rack units. What is the height of one rack unit?

1.75 inches

2 inches

40mm

55mm

Answer: 1.75 inches

Explanation: Server racks are measured in terms of rack units typically written RU or just U. One rack unit equals 1.75 inches or 44.45mm in height. Equipment will be measured in multiples of U. A network switch or server can be 1U, 2U or 10U or more.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Given a scenario, use appropriate documentation.”

Question 15

You and the rest of the network team have been working all day on the upgrades for the firmware on all your Cisco switches and wireless access points. The firmware upgrades were critical security upgrades and needed to be applied all at once. Which of the choices will NOT be impacted by this update?

Baseline and configuration documentation

Physical network diagrams

Logical network diagrams

Wiring schematics

Answer: Wiring schematics

Explanation: None of the devices moved so wiring schematic is the correct response. The other choices will be performed using network management tools. These tools can update baseline and configuration along with performance statistics. The make, model, OS and firmware on all managed devices is also recorded.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Given a scenario, use appropriate documentation.”

Question 16

You need to configure your server pool to appear as a single IP address. Which technique would you use?

Clustering

Bundling

SAN

VPN

Answer: Clustering

Explanation: A server pool can be configured as a cluster, allowing the server pool to appear as a single IP address instead of multiple, individual addresses. Bundling is not a relevant term here. A SAN (Storage Area Network) can be used to cluster storage devices for servers but is not considered part of the server pool. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is irrelevant to server pools and clusters.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.2 – “Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.”

Question 17

When comparing disaster recovery contingencies, which one of the following categories might maintain a duplicate of each of your data center servers but would not be updated daily with your live data and have fewer computers and devices than are used in your daily operation?

A cold site

A warm site

A boiler room

A hot site

Answer: A warm site

Explanation: The warm site is a place where the computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, with some pieces appropriately configured, updated, or connected. Typically you would have the warm site service provider update those duplicate servers with your backed-up data on the first of each month as a cost saving measure compared to the expense of performing a daily update (which would be typical of a hot site).

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.2 – “Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.”

Question 18

When discussing fault tolerance for your network, it is determined that your physical hardware has redundant power for the critical devices. Which choice would provide optimal redundancy for network faults?

Link aggregation

NIC teaming

Load balancing

Port aggregation

Answer: Load balancing

Explanation: In this example, load balancing would enable the network to operate normally in the event of a fault. The other methods shown are targeted more at increasing bandwidth.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 3.0 – Network Operations
Sub-Objective: 3.2 – “Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.”

Question 19

You are comparing physical security controls for a new network closet. Which of the following locks will allow the use of a badge that: 1) can be programmed to allow access to selected rooms, and 2) can be detected while inside a wallet or purse but, 3) does not require a battery for power?

Active smart card

Passive proximity smart card

Biometric card

Cipher lock

Answer: Passive proximity smart card

Explanation: Passive smart cards are badges that can be programmed to allow their owner access to some, but not all, rooms in a building.  Passive Proximity cards do not require a battery. Additionally, Proximity cards do not require direct contact with a proximity reader in order to be detected. Readers can be concealed inside a wall or other enclosure and require very little maintenance. With a typical range of about 5-10 cm (two to four inches), the card may be detected even while it’s still inside a user’s wallet or purse.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.1 – “Summarize the purposes of physical security devices.”

Question 20

Your company is testing access control solutions for your network. Which of the solutions authenticates and authorizes devices?

SSO

Kerberos

2FA

NAC

Answer: NAC

Explanation: NAC (Network Access Control) is considered a next level AAA solution. NAC grants access to devices by reviewing their configuration, applications, and settings. SSO (Single Sign-On) allows users to access multiple services using the same username/password combination. Kerberos is an SSO solution. 2FA (two-factor authentication) requires the user to provide two sources of authentication, for example a fingerprint and a password.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.2 – “Explain authentication and access controls.”

Question 21

Which security technique would prevent users from using FTP?

MAC filtering

IP address filtering

Port filtering

These techniques would all be used.

Answer: Port filtering

Explanation: By blocking users access to send and receive over ports 20 and 21, any FTP traffic will be blocked.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.2 – “Explain authentication and access controls.”

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT true about the TACACS+ authentication system?

TACACS+ relies on TCP at the Transport layer.

TACACS+ was developed by, and is a proprietary product of, Microsoft.

TACACS+ is typically installed on a router.

Uses encryption of all information transmitted during the AAA process.

Answer: TACACS+ was developed by, and is a proprietary product of, Microsoft.

Explanation: TACACS+ which stands for Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus is an AAA protocol that offers network administrators the option of separating the Access, Authentication, and Auditing capabilities. TACACS+ was developed by Cisco Systems and is a proprietary product for use only on Cisco products.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.2 – “Explain authentication and access controls.”

Question 23

Which Wi-Fi security protocol provides better protection?

WPA

WAP

WEP

WAP and WPA

Answer: WPA

Explanation: When WEP was found to be less secure than initially anticipated, Wi-Fi Protected Access was developed to enhance the security of User Authentication using EAP and add a more secure encryption method with TKIP.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.3 – “Given a scenario, secure a basic wireless network.”

Question 24

Geofencing requires components to determine the client location. Which of the choices would NOT be helpful?

Cell signal

GPS

Wi-fi router

MAC address

Answer: MAC address

Explanation: Your device’s MAC address is constant and not dependent on location. Very specific longitude and latitude data can be gained from cell towers, Wi-Fi routers, and quite specifically from the device’s GPS.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 4.0 – Network Security
Sub-Objective: 4.3 – “Given a scenario, secure a basic wireless network.”

Question 25

You are troubleshooting a gigabit copper ethernet connection. You need to be able to check every connection point and repair if necessary. Which of these tools do you NOT need?

Cable tester

Punchdown tool

Light meter

Tone generator/tone probe

Answer: Light meter

Explanation: A light meter is an OPM (Optical Power Meter). A light meter is used to test fiber optic cables by measuring the amount of light power passing through them. A cable tester or cable continuity tester checks for breaks across the full length of the cable. A punchdown tool is used to connect each cable run to the patch panel or the wall jack. The eight copper wires are individually punched down in order to create the correct pinouts and terminate the connection. A tone generator is used to send a signal down a wire. An example of this is a dial tone. The toner probe is then used to determine which of the wires is carrying the tone.

Network+ N10-007 Main Domain 5.0 – Network Troubleshooting and Tools
Sub-Objective: 5.2 – “Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool.”

You did it! 30 questions – We hope you enjoyed our Network plus N10-007 free practice test.

10 thoughts on “CompTIA Network plus N10-007 free practice test exam questions

    1. You are most welcome! And thank you for reaching out.

  1. Hello,
    Please I will like to purchase your Network Plus Exams. Are they answers listed in there as well?

    Thanks,
    Sarah

    1. Hi Sarah, yes the answers are listed for every question in Study Mode. In Certification and Assessment mode they are hidden. You get to pick each time you launch an exam or drill which of the three modes you want that session to be in.

      Best of luck on your quest for Network+ certification!

  2. Hi,

    Are the questions Comptia approved? Are they similar to what you’ll be seeing in the exams?

      1. How long can you keep certblaster once you purchase it .

        1. Hi Pedro, your CertBlaster license is valid two years from first activation.

  3. IS there a possibility to purchase only the simulation part of the questions? OR say purchase both multiple choice and simulations apart. I particularly like your questions because each of them include acronyms .
    The key to success is knowing what these acronyms mean.

    1. Hi Jam, Thank you for your interest in CertBlaster. The CertBlaster software is a practice question bank that is integrated into the exam simulator. One cannot be separated from the other as the complement each other. Best of luck in your quest for certification!

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

On Facebook

Trust Guard Security Scanned
Share This
Real Time Web Analytics